Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 03.07.2025 01:31
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
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What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Has anyone ever had sex with their cousin? How did it start, and would you do it again?
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why would the United States need a fleet of the F-47 fighter jet fielded in the 2030s?
There's no rule.